Question Bank – OPERATING ( For Group “B” / Guard / Station Master and so forth) (HINDI+ENGLISH)

Question Bank – OPERATING ( For Group “B” / Guard / Station Master and so forth) Part – 1B – Fill in the blank Part I Fill in the blanks:

Question Bank – OPERATING ( For Group “B” / Guard / Station Master and so forth) Part – 1B –  Fill in the blank    Part I   Fill in the blanks:

भाग I / Part I

Fill in the blanks:

101. SWR shall be re-issued whether it is required to difficulty ______ correction slip.

102. In case of accident, siren is repeated at an interval of _________ minutes.

103. Depot in-cost is accountable to check the detonators as soon as in ________.

104. Whenever new sign is positioned, warning order is issued to Loco Pilot for _______ days.

105.  During ACF on single line, when line clear is obtained for a couple of practice, trains  are run at an interval of _________ minutes.

106.  It is the accountability of SM to see that shunting is carried out as per ______.

107.   Distance between two automated alerts is named as _____________.

108.  Suburban Working schedule is signed by _________, COM and CPTM

109. Motorman shall give ________________ beat to launch the hand brakes.

110. velocity is set by _________.

111. Each motor coach shall include _________Traction motors.

112. S mark on the EMU coach means __________.

113. To connect the 12 coach EMU rake, _______ models are to be hooked up.

114. Motor coach is a _________ coach.

115.  A jumper is distant management and is used for _________.

116. In case of ACP, Guard of EMU shall give __________ bell.

117. BP in the Guard cab of EMU shall be ______ kg/cm2 and Motormans cab shall be 4.6 kg/cm2.

118. The numbers of A, B and C coaches are 72, ____ and 76.

119. Calling on sign is positioned beneath any cease sign besides __________.

120. Illuminated AG marker of semi-automated sign means _____________.

121. Illuminated A and AG marker of semi-automated sign means ___________.

122. Extinguished A and AG marker of semi-automated sign means __________.

123. Guard shall use _____ bell code to warn the motorman, if motorman voilated the velocity.

124.  If the sign is repeatedly bobbing / flickering, the sign is handled as exhibiting ___________ side.

125. If the motorman of EMU passes the automated cease sign at ON, he shall proceed at a velocity of 15/Eight km/h and cease the practice earlier than _____ meters of the obstruction on the monitor.

ANSWER
 

101) fourth           102) 5        103)  yr         104) 10          105) 30               106) SWR

107)  Signalling part        108)  DRM       109) 00-0-00        110)  COM     111) 4     112) Spare

113) 4        114) Self propelled       115) Control on gentle, followers and so forth  116) 000-00-00         117) 4.6

118) 70         119) Last cease sign        120) Point set and locked however gate open or faulty

121) Point set, locked and gate additionally closed for Road site visitors

122) Point not set and locked, gate could open or faulty    123) 000-000

124)  Most restrictive     125) 75

Fill in the blanks:

126. Adequate distance talked about in the automated block system is ____ meters.

127.  Motorman of EMU shall give _______ bell code whereas passing A marker lit gate sign  in ON place.

128. EMU practice has ________ and automated sorts of working brakes.

129. EMU practice has _____ kind of couplings.

130. EMU trains of harbour line has ______ variety of picket wedges.

131. To name the Guard to the driving cab, Motorman of EMU practice will give ______ bell code.

132. IBS is a ____________________ class of station.

133. Maximum velocity of trains throughout thick & foggy climate in absolute block system is _______.

134. Maximum velocity of trains throughout thick & foggy climate in automated block system is_______ when sign is exhibiting double yellow.

135. Maximum velocity of trains throughout thick & foggy climate in absolute block system is _______ when sign is exhibiting inexperienced.

136. When the calling on sign is taken off, it signifies the loco pilot to proceed _________ and be ready to cease in need of any obstruction.

137. Danger zone in 25 KV AC traction is ______meters from OHE.

138. Danger zone in 1500 DC traction is ________ meters from OHE.

139. Normal situation of automated cease sign is _________.

140. If the IBS sign is ON and Telephone is flawed, Loco Pilot shall wait for five minutes and proceed at a velocity of ________.

141. Yearly teaching inventory census is taken on _______.

142. Interchange level of Central and Western railway is ________.

143. Yearly items inventory census is taken on ________.

144. Shunt sign is positioned beneath any cease sign besides __________.

145. Hand shunting shouldn’t be carried out in the absence of _________ supervisor.

146. Controller of wagon pool is ___________.

147. Permission of _______ is required to run ODC.

148. In passenger practice ________ powder vans may be hooked up.

149. Maximum velocity of working of BWL wagon is ________ km/h.

150. VG is ready by _________________.

ANSWER

126) 120 Meter           127) 00-00         128) EP brake,     129) Shakau    130) 4      131) 000

132) C Class             133) 60km/h        134) 30 km/h         135) 60 km/h    136)  Cautiously

137) 2 मीटर /meter     138) 1मीटर meter     139) हरी/inexperienced       140) 15/ 8     141)  31october

142) Jalgaon,Dadar      143) November    144)  first cease sign     145) transportation

146) DWI     147)  COM    148) 2        149) 30km/h         150) Trains clerk

Fill in the blanks:


151. BPC is ready by _______________.

152. While working BWL wagon, _____ variety of Guard wagons shall be there between

the BWL wagon and the engine.

153. Details of wagon indifferent from practice are entered in the_______ register.

154. Calling on sign exhibits ________ gentle in ‘On’ situation.

155. Points are handled as ____________________ if the sign turns into faulty.

156. On seeing the scorching axle in the practice, ______________ bell code is given on block instrument to the subsequent station.

157. Before eradicating the purple flag / lamp from the cabin throughout shuting, it shall be ensured that the factors are _____________.

158. At a B class station shunting may be carried out in _____ part even after granting line clear.

159. Fog sign put up is positioned at 270 meters from the __________ sign the place double distant sign shouldn’t be offered.

160. Block over lap in multi side signaling is _____ meters.

161. To carry out shunting in block part on a single line _________ is completed.

162. Authority for shunting is _________.

163. Subsidiary guidelines are issued by ____________.

164. Axle counter is a __________ for granting line clear.

165.  ________ is the bell code for testing of block instrument.

166. Life of detonators manufactured previous to Oct. 2011 is _______ years.

167. Life of detonators manufactured after Oct. 2011 is _______ years.

168. _________ bell code is given when the practice entered the block part.

169. _______ authority is issued to cross the faulty cease sign in On place.

170.  Cabin grasp shall change _____ sign with practice crew whereas practice is passing via the station.

171. On seeing _______, Cabin grasp ensures that the practice has arrived utterly.

172. To obtain the practice on obstructed line _______ authority is issued.

173. If the gateman not attends the telephone, _____ authority is issued to the Loco Pilot.

174. Train getting into into slip siding is a ______ kind of accident.

175. Sounding of three hooters suggest _________.

ANSWER

151) Train Examiner       152) 6        153) Wagon change register     154)  nil   155) non interlocked

156) 000000-0       157) Set     158) station part      159) First cease sign    160) 180 मीटर/ meter

161) block again       162) T /806     163)  Authorized Officer   164)  means     165) 16     166) 7

167) 5          168) 3             169) T / 369 (3b)      170) all proper hand    171)  TL/TB   172) T / 509

173) warning order     174)  indicative           175) ART/Road cell ART required at out station.

Fill in the blanks:

176. Signal overlap in multi side signalling system is _________.

177. Speed of TTM whereas passing via the factors is ___________.

178.  Authority to proceed on a double line is ____________.

179. To open communication _____ authority is issued throughout ACF on single line.

180.  Speed of TTM is set by ________.

181. TTM supervisor shall instantly ___________ on seeing the hazard hand sign of SM whereas passing via the station.

182. Loco Pilot shall sound ________ whistle to launch the hand brakes by Guard.

183. Authority to proceed in ‘one train only system’ is ___________.

184. Stop indicator is positioned at a distance of _______ meters from the obstruction.

185. Trap indicator offers ________ gentle if the swap is open.

186.  Loco Pilot shall sound ______ whistle if the practice is incomplete.

187. If the patrolman doesn’t flip up inside 15 minutes from the scheduled time, trains in that path will probably be stopped and warning order of _____ km/h by day.

188.  If the patrolman doesn’t flip up inside 15 minutes from the scheduled time, trains in that path will probably be stopped and warning order of _______ km/h by night time is issued.

189. Calling on sign offers ______ gentle in ‘on’ situation

190. Calling on sign offers _______ gentle in ‘off’ situation.

191. If the patrolman doesn’t turnup upto ____ minutes from the scheduled time, he will probably be handled as delayed.

192. If the practice handed with extinguished tail lamp, SM shall ___ rear block part.

193. Speed of the practice whereas passing via customary II R station is _____ km/h.

194.To dispatch the stopping practice from station, ______ sign is taken off first.

195. Speed of the practice whereas passing via customary I R station is _____ km/h.

196.  Adequate distance for granting line clear is named as __________.

197. Block over lap begins from __________ sign.

198. In multi side signalling system, Distant and _____ alerts are proved at a C’ class  station.

199.Block part begins from _________________ sign and ends at an sufficient distance past the first cease sign of the station in advance.

200. On a double line for performing shunting in the Block Section in advance, line is to be _______.

ANSWER

176)  meter                  177) 15 km/h        178) off situation of final cease sign    179) T/B 602

180) CRS        181) will cease the TTM        182) one lengthy one quick   183) steel token   184)  meter

185)  purple      186) lengthy quick lengthy quick     187) 40       188) 15       189)  No    190)  miniature yellow

191) 15        192) clear     193) 110 km/h    194)  Starter      195) 50 km/h    196) Block overlap

197) First cease         198)  Home              199) Last cease sign      200) Block ahead

QUESTION OF COMMERCIAL-TICKET CHEKING

TICKET CHEKING

1 V formed nipper is used for

[a] checking tickets in trains            [b] checking PCT at entrance gate

for canceling PCT [d] all of the above

2 M formed nipper is used for

[a] checking tickets in trains [b] nipping tickets at entrance gate

for cancellation of tickets [d] none of those

three U formed nipper is used for

[a] checking the tickets in prepare [b] checking tickets on the entrance gate

for cancelling the tickets [d] all of the above

4 Tickets bearing double numbers needs to be

[a] permitted to journey [b] collected and a free EFT issued

charged with Rs.50/- as EC [d] None of those

5 Ticket Collector ought to enter the collected tickets in

[a] DTC ebook [b] TCR Rough journal ebook [d] none of those

6 An individual touring with un-exchanged warrant IAAFT 1752 and with no G.C. is charged

[a] fare + EC upto the purpose of detection and a free EFT after assortment of warrant

[b] fare + EC solely fare            [d] none of those

7 A decrease class ticket holder touring in greater class needs to be charged

[a] fare + EC [b] distinction of two courses fare + EC solely distinction of fare [d] none of those

eight A baby touring with out ticket, alongwith mother and father who’ve tickets is charged

[a] half of fare from final ticket checking level + EC

[b] half of the fare from the beginning station as per mother or father ticket upto the purpose of detection + EC + half of the fare onwards

half of the fare from the final ticket checking level [d] none

9 A passenger with out ticket and obtained a G.C. is charged

[a] fare + EC [b] fare solely free EFT [d] none

10 A passenger with out ticket and with out G.C. is charged

[a] fare + EC             [b] EC solely           solely fare        [d] none

11 An individual detected with out ticket in BV is charged

[a] I class fare + EC [b] fare solely II class fare + EC [d] none

12 Passenger discovered with two consecutive season ticket is charged

[a] fare + EC           [b] issued free EFT              allowed free       [d] none

RAILWAY QUESTION BANK OF COMMERCIAL -RATES

Commercial

 Rates – PART I

 

1. What are Wharfage costs? What is the free time allowed on Goods unloaded and charges for levy of Wharfage costs?

2.  Define demurrage costs? What are the rules for dealing of waiver/refund of demurrage and Wharfage costs?

3.  What are the final guidelines for reserving of baggage?

4.  Write brief notes on following:

a) Free allowance of baggage on tickets of various lessons and passes issued to Railway servants.

b) What is marginal allowance.

5 How do you deal the instances of unbooked and partially booked baggage detected on trains?

6 What is supposed by Rationalization of Parcel Traffic? How does it assist Railways in minimizing claims?

7 Write intimately about Season tickets? Market Vendor Season ticket, Low Value Season ticket, Free Season Tickets issued to college students.

8 What are the foundations for reserving of a particular practice?

9 What is supposed by Station Outstanding? What are the steps taken to reduce excellent?

10 Write brief Notes on the next

a) Routing of products visitors    b) Rating of products visitors   c) Route Rationalization Scheme.

11 What are the foundations governing the opening of a halt station?

12 Write brief notes on any three of the next:

a) Wagon Demand Registration Fee.    b) Exemption from cost of WDRF.

c) Refund of WDRF.      d) Premier Registration Scheme.

13 What are the final guidelines for challenge of Railway concessions to passengers? Write about any two concessions?

14 What are the foundations governing grant of station to station charge?

15.  What is a siding? Briefly clarify the process for opening of a siding?

16.  What is a siding settlement? What are the assorted costs collected at Siding?

17.  Write brief notes on :

a) Out Agency      b) City Booking Office   c) RCT     d) RRT    e) Claims Website

f) MRs 11 level programme    g) Single File System    h) Method to observe Boards and MRs references

 

 18.  Write about weighment and reweighment of Goods and collection of punitive charges in case of overloading?

19.  What are the incentives and Awards Scheme obtainable on S.C.Railway for implementation of Hindi?

20. What are the constitutional provision relating to use of Official Language Policy?

 

 

Rates – PART II

1. RCF stands for _________________________.

2. FOIS stands for ___________________________________.

3. IVRS stands for ____________________________________.

4. POET stands for ____________________________________

5. COIS stands for _____________________________________.

6. CONCERT stands for __________________________________.

7. RDSO stands for ______________________________________.

8. CRIS stands for ______________________________________.

9. IRCTC stands for _______________________________________.

10. RITES stand for ____________________________________.

11. IRCON stands for ____________________________________.

12. IRFC stands for ______________________________________.

13. NTES stands for _____________________________________.

14. Commercial Manual Vol.I offers with___________.

15. Commercial Manual Vol. II offers with _____________________.

16. Goods Tariff Part I Vol I comprises guidelines relating to _____________ items.

17. Goods Tariff Part I Vol II comprises guidelines relating to _____________ of products.

18. Goods Tariff Part II comprises guidelines relating to __________ of products.

19. Coaching Tariff half I comprise guidelines relating to ____________.

20. Coaching Tariff half II comprises guidelines relating to ____________.

21. Coaching Tariff half III comprises guidelines relating to ____________.

22. TRC stands for ____________________________________

23. SORC stands for __________________________________________

24. Bans are imposed by _________________________.

25. Restrictions are imposed by _____________________.

26. Wagon demand can’t be accepted when ____________ are in power.

27. Forwarding notice must be preserved for a minimal interval of _______.

28. Preferential visitors order is ruled by Section ___ of the railway act.

29. Excepting on ___________ days allotment of wagons must be executed as per precedence.

30. PT Order is legitimate a interval of ______________________.

31. PTO is printed by _______________________.

32. Allotment of wagons as per oldest date of registration is completed on ______.

33. The variety of priorities in PT Order is _______________.

34. For dispose unconnected or undelivered items y public public sale directions from _______________ is required.

35. In case of stated to comprise RR, extra packages are delivered on _____________ and _______________________.

36. WT is licensed by ____________________.

37. BCX normal rake consists ____________ wagons

38. Change of commodity is permitted by the DCM if the commodity is _____.

39. In case of misdeclaration, the minimal penalty per quintal is _________.

40. If PCEV costs usually are not paid Railways legal responsibility per sheep/goat is ______.

41. L situation means _________________________________________.

42. In normal classifications letter d signifies ________________________.

43. In normal classification letter small p signifies ___________________.

44. M & DG stands for ___________________________________

45. PDC stands for ______________________________________

46. SWA stands for _____________________________________

47. SLO stands for ___________________________________________

48. VDS stands for _____________________________________________

49. JSR stands for __________________________________________

50. MPA stands for ________________________________________

51. Delivery in need of vacation spot known as _______________________.

52. Diversion price per wagon is Rs. ____________________.

53. When consignments are diverted freight excellent may be cleared by _______________________.

54. Rebooking of perishables is ___________________.

55. When consignments are rebooked freight excellent may be cleared by ______________.

56. RR is issued on the door step of consignor in _______________ companies.

57. Specially lowered charges is relevant in _______ to ________ charge.

58. Demurrage cost is levied on per___________________basis.

59. Normal Goods shed working hours are from _______ to ________.

60. Demurrage cost for first 24 hours per Eight wheeler wagon per hour is Rs. ______

61. Demurrages cost for second 24 hours per Eight wheeler wagon per hour is Rs. ________.

62. Demurrage cost for subsequent hours after second 24 hours per Eight wheeler BG wagon per hour is Rs. _____.

63. Wharfage cost is collected per day per ________ for items visitors.

64. Wharfage cost on parcels is collected per day per a unit of ______ kgs.

65. Concession granted to Orthopedically handicapped individual with escort in AC2 tier is ________ p.c

66. Concession granted to Orthopedically handicapped individual with escort in Sleeper class is ________ p.c.

67. Concession given to college students on Season ticket is ________ p.c.

68. Free season tickets are issued to ladies college students learning upto _____ class.

69. Free season tickets are issued to boys college students learning upto ____ class.

70. The cost of low value season ticket issued to labourers of unorganized sector is Rs. ___.

INDIAN RAILWAY QUESTION BANK – COMMERCIAL ON CLAIM

INDIAN RAILWAY QUESTION BANK – COMMERCIAL

CLAIM – PART I

 

1. What is the process to be adopted or settlement of excessive worth claims?
2. What are the tasks of railways as frequent carriers?
3. What is the process adopted for settlement of claims for compensation for loss of life or damage in case of accidents/untoward incidents?
4. What are the varied steps taken by railways to forestall claims arising out of loss/injury/destruction/deterioration/non-supply of products?
5. Write intimately the process adopted for disposal of
a) Excess unconnected items. b) Unconnected wagons/parcels.
6. Write brief notes on Open Delivery and Assessment Delivery?
7. Write brief notes on any three of the next:
a) Wagon Demand Registration Fee.
b) Exemption from fee of WDRF.
c) Refund of WDRF.
d) Premier Registration Scheme.
8. Write brief notes on
a) Weight solely system b)Credit Notes
9. What is the process for granting supply of Goods within the absence of Railway Receipt and Invoice? What is perishable deposit?
10. Differentiate rebooking and diversion?
11. What is the process for indenting of printed card tickets? What is recalled indent?
12. What are the final guidelines for reserving of bags? What is the utmost permissible restrict for carrying baggage with passengers in numerous lessons?
13. What is supposed by Rationalization of Parcel Traffic? How does it assist Railways in minimizing claims?
14. What are the varied scales below which parcels are charged? What is PCEV cost and the way do you calculate PCEV expenses for bikes?
15 .What is the premise for categorization of stations for the aim of offering passenger facilities? What are the classifications of passenger facilities?
16. What is irregular journey? What is the penalty levied on a passenger detected travelling with out ticket?
17. What is supposed by Station Outstanding? What are the steps taken to attenuate excellent?
18. Write brief notes on any two:
a) ZRUCC b) DRUCC c) Station Consultative Committee.
19. Enumerate the refund guidelines below the next circumstances:
a) Abnormal circumstances b) Failure of Air Conditioning Equipment
c) Loss of Tickets.
20. Write brief notes on the next
a) Tatkal Scheme b) Ticket Deposit Receipt.
21. Write Short Notes on the next:
a) RCT b) RRT c) Claims Website
21. Write Short Notes on the next
a) Single File System
c) Method to look at Boards and MRs references
22. What are the incentives and Awards Scheme accessible on S.C. Railway for implementation of Hindi?
23. What are the constitutional provision concerning use of Official Language Policy?

  Commercial CLAIM – PART II

Objective Type Questions: Fill within the blanks.

1. RCF stands for _________________________.
2. FOIS stands for ___________________________________.
3. IVRS stands for ____________________________________.
4. POET stands for ____________________________________
5. COIS stands for _____________________________________.
6. CONCERT stands for __________________________________.
7. RDSO stands for ______________________________________.
8. CRIS stands for ______________________________________.
9. IRCTC stands for _______________________________________.
10. RITES stand for ____________________________________.
11. IRCON stands for ___________________________________________.
12. IRFC stands for ____________________________________________.
13. NTES stands for ___________________________________________.
14. TIELS stands for ____________________________________________.
15. Commercial Manual Vol.I offers with___________.
16. Commercial Manual Vol. II offers with _____________________.
17. Goods Tariff Part I Vol I comprises guidelines concerning _____________ of products.
18. Goods Tariff Part I Vol II comprises guidelines concerning _____________ of products.
19. Goods Tariff Part II comprises _____________ of products.
20. Coaching Tariff half I comprises guidelines concerning ____________.
21. Coaching Tariff half II comprises guidelines concerning ____________.
22. Coaching Tariff half III comprises guidelines concerning ____________.
23. TRC stands for ____________________________________________
24. TMS stands for ___________________________________________
25. Bans are imposed by _________________________.
26. Restrictions are imposed by _____________________.
27. Wagon demand can’t be accepted when _______________ are in pressure.
28. Forwarding observe must be preserved for a minimal interval of _____________.
29. Preferential site visitors order is ruled by Section ___ of the railway act.
30. Excepting on ___________ days allotment of wagons must be executed as per precedence.
31. PT Order is legitimate a interval of ______________________.
32. PTO is revealed by _______________________.
33. Allotment of wagons as per oldest date of registration is completed on ______________.
34. The variety of priorities in PT Order is _______________.
35. For dispose unconnected or undelivered items y public public sale directions from _______________ is required.
36. In case of stated to comprise RR, extra packages are delivered on _____________________________ and _______________________.
37. WT is licensed by ____________________.
38. BCX customary rake consists ____________ wagons
39. Change of commodity is permitted by the DCM if the commodity is __________________.
40. In case of misdeclaration, the minimal penalty per quintal is ___________.
41. If PCEV expenses are usually not paid Railways legal responsibility per sheep/goat is _______.
42. MDG stands for ____________________________________________
43. SWA stands for ______________________________________________
44. SLO stands for _____________________________________________
45. VDS stands for _____________________________________________
46. JSR stands for __________________________________________
47. MPA stands for ________________________________________
48. Delivery in need of vacation spot known as _______________________.
49. Diversion price per wagon is Rs. ____________________.
50. When consignments are diverted freight excellent could be cleared by way of _______________________.
51. Rebooking of perishables is ___________________.
52. When consignments are rebooked freight excellent could be cleared by way of ______________.
53. RR is issued on the door step of consignor in _______________ companies.
54. Demurrage cost is levied on per__________ & _____________basis.
55. Normal Goods shed working hours are from _______ to ________..
56. DDM/DDPC is addressed to ______________________.
57. Damage and Deficiency message is issued with in __________ hours of opening of the wagon.
58. Joint survey report is ready in ____________ copies.
59. Joint survey report is submitted to _________________.
60. Wharfage expenses on Goods are on per __________________ foundation.
61. Wharfage expenses on Parcels are on per _____ & _________basis.
62. Wax seals shouldn’t be used on wagons loaded with __________.
63. The object of riveting a wagon is to ________________.
64. Maximum variety of rivets that may be offered on every door is _____.
65. Rivets are bent at _____________ angles
66. Minimum PCEV cost for common commodities is __________.
67. WDRF for a Four wheeler BG wagon is _______________.
68. WDRF is refunded when the demand is cancelled after _________ days.
69. Private marking is completed by _____________.
70. Sale notices are served below part __________ and __________.
71. Permission of DCM is required to rebook _________________________.
72. In case of wagon load common items the load for cost is rounded off to ______
73. If PCEV just isn’t paid the Railway legal responsibility per Bull is _____________.
74. If PCEV just isn’t paid the Railway legal responsibility per Elephant is _____________.
75. If PCE If PCEV just isn’t paid the Railway legal responsibility per Dog is ______.
76. If PCEV just isn’t paid the Railway legal responsibility per Horse is _____________.
77. When packages are brief, extra or exchanged _______ is issued.
78. Section ________ of the Railway Act is linked with the Sidings.
79. The extent of financial legal responsibility for loss/injury of products is prescribed in part ________ of Railway Act.
80. In case of undelivered common items sale notices are served after _______ days.
81. Error sheets are ready in Accounts Office and despatched to station in _______ foils.
82. Error sheets obtain from Accounts workplace must be accounted on ________ aspect of the steadiness sheet.
83. In case of consignments that are diverted enroute excellent freight at authentic vacation spot is cleared by ____________.
84. SMs are approved to grant refund of overcharges of freight on the time of supply in case of _____________.
85. Wharfage remission orders are accounted on the ____________ aspect of the steadiness sheet.
86. Wharfage accrued is accounted on the _____ aspect of the steadiness sheet.
87. Exgratia fee to passengers in case of straightforward accidents is Rs. ______.
88. Exgratia fee to passengers in case of grievous accidents is Rs. ____
89. Exgratia payable in case of loss of life of a passenger is Rs. ______
90. Compensation payable in case of loss of life of a passenger is Rs. ____
91. Compensation payable to passenger in case of everlasting incapacity is Rs __
92. Maximum compensation payable in case of any grievous accidents is _________
93. Admitted debits must be instantly paid if the quantity is upto _____.
94. Demurrage expenses accrued is accounted on the __________ aspect of the steadiness sheet.

95. Short Accountal and Short Remittances upto Rs.100/- must be cleared by way of __________________.
96. SMs are usually not approved to grant refund of overcharges on the time of supply in respect of ____________ or __________________.
97. At the top of the day, the SM will remit station earnings by way of _____________
98. Prior Finance concurrence is required for waiver of DC/WC cost, when the demurrage

Commercial CLAIM – PART III

Multiple Choice Questions:

1 Head of pubic relations division at Zonal stage is
( ) (a) CPRO (b) CCM (c) COM (d) Sr.DCM
2 Functions of the Commercial Department are
( ) (a) Sale of transport (b) Development of site visitors (c) Maintaining public relations (d) all.
3 Head of public complaints at Zonal railway is
( ) (a) Sr.DOM (b) AGM (c) DRM (d) COM
4 Head of Public complaints at Divisional stage is
( ) (a) Sr.DCM (b) ADRM (c) Sr.DOM (d) DRM
5 DDM must be issued inside _____ hours from the time of opening of the wagon.
( ) (a). 3 (b). 4 (c). 5 (d). 6
6 J.S.R. is submitted to
( ) (a). CCM (b). CCO (c). DCM (d). ACM
7 SM is empowered to ship the consignments on indemnity bond as much as a most of
( ) (a). Rs.50,000 (b).Rs.One lakh (c).Rs.2 lakhs (d). Rs.80,000
8 Sale discover must be served below sections
( ) (a).83,84 (b). 64,66 (c). 89,90 (d). none
9 ________ consignments are usually not delivered on indemnity bond.
( ) (a) Self (b) Perishables (c)To pay consignments (d) None
10 Time restrict for claiming refund on perishable deposit is ______ months from the date of supply
( ) (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7
11. When bill just isn’t accessible, for supply of common items on indemnity bond, permission is required from
( ) (a) SM (b) CPO (c) DCM (d) FA & CAO
12. Gate move is ready in __________ foils
( ) (a) two (b) three (c) 4 (d) none
13. Duplicate RR is
( ) (a)could be issued (b)Cant be issued (c) Is permitted by CCM
(d)None
14. DDPC is issued
( ) (a) Within 6 hours (b) On the day of unloading (c) Within 24 hours (d)Within 48 hours.
15. General Indemnity bond is legitimate for
( ) (a) 1 12 months (b) 6 months (c) Three years (d) 7 days
16. Packages could stay unconnected for need of
( ) (a) Private or Railway marking (b) Illegible marking
(c)Markings are pale and unreadable (d) All of those
17. Monetary restrict of CCM to waive demurrage cost is
( ) (a) Rs. 25,000/- (b) Rs. 50,000/- c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Unlimited
18. Monetary restrict of GM to waive demurrage cost is
( ) (a) Rs. 25,000/- (b) Rs. 50,000/- c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Unlimited
19. Pre-ponement of journey on reserved ticket is permitted
( ) (a) 6 hours earlier than departure of practice (b) 24 hours earlier than departure (c) Three days upfront d) None of those
20. Postponement of journey on reserved ticket is permitted
( ) (a) 6 hours earlier than departure of practice (b) 24 hours earlier than departure (c) Three days upfront (d) None of those
21. General Responsibility of the Railways is outlined in Section ____ of the
Railways Act.
( ) (a) Section 93 (b) Section 94 (c) Section 95 (d) Section 96.
22. Section of the Railways Act which offers with Defective Packing Condition.
( ) (a) Section 96 (b) Section 97 (c) Section 98 (d) Section 99.
23. Monetary Liability of Railways is outlined in Section ___ of the Railways Act.
( )(a) Section 101 (b) Section 102 (c) Section 103 (d) Section 104.
24. Responsibility of the Railways in Carriage of Live Stock is outlined in Section ____ of the Railways Act.
( ) (a) Section 101 (b) Section 102 (c) Section 103 (d) Section 104.
25. Notice of Claim for Compensation shall be given as per Section___ of the
Railways Act.
( )(a) Section 103 (b) Section 104 (c) Section 105 (d) Section 106.
26. Section of the Railways Act which offers with Burden of Proof.
( ) (a) Section 107 (b) Section 106 (c) Section 109 (d) Section 110
27. Section ___ of Railways Act, 1989 offers with proper of railway administration to verify contents of sure consignments or baggage.
( )(a) Section 103 (b) Section 104 (c) Section 105 (d) Section 106.
28. Section ___ of Railways Act, 1989, offers with the particular person entitled to assert for compensation.
( ) (a) Section 107 (b) Section 106 (c) Section 109 (d) Section 110

Railway Question Bank – Refund ( Commercial)

Railway Question Bank – Refund ( Commercial)

 

1 Minimum cancellation prices on reserved AC First class ticket is

[a] Rs.50/- [b] Rs. 30/- Rs.20/- [d] Rs.10/-

2 When a I class reserved ticket is canceled sooner or later upfront, the cancellation cost is the same as

[a] 50% of fare [b] 25% 75% [d] minimal cancellation prices.

3 If a practice is canceled, full quantity could be refunded at station upto

[a] 6 hours [b] 2 hours Three hours [d] Three days

4 When a practice is operating late by greater than Three hours, ______ on cancellation of reserved tickets.

[a] cancellation cost due is collected [b] clerkage due is collected
full quantity is refunded [d] no refund is due

5 For trains leaving between 21.00 hours and 06.00 hours (precise departure), refunds shall be admissible inside first ______ after the opening of reservation workplace

[a] Four hours [b] 2 hours 6 hours [d] Eight hours

6 _______ cancellation prices can be collected on tickets on which preponement or postponement of journey has been permitted

[a] one [b] three two [d] 4

7 When a passenger holding reserved ticket is just not supplied with lodging,________ on cancellation of the ticket

[a] full fare shall be refunded [b] minimal prices shall be collected
clerkage can be collected [d] 50% of fare can be refunded

8 In case of loss of life/damage to a passenger on account of accident,

[a] fare is refunded deducting clerkage [b] fare for the traveled portion is retained
full fare for your entire booked journey is refunded [d] 10% of fare retained with Railway

9 When practice providers are dislocated on account of bandh, agitation or rail roko

[a] fare for the traveled portion is retained and the untraveled portion is refunded
[b] 25% of fare is refunded 50% of fare is refunded [d] full fare is refunded

10 Duplicate ticket could be issued for the aim of endeavor journey when ticket is

[a] misplaced [b] misplaced torn/mutilated [d] all of the above circumstances

11 Unused wait listed or RAC tickets if canceled and if reservation is just not confirmed on the time of cancellation ______ can be collected.

[a] 10% of fare [b] solely clerkage 25% of fare [d] 50% of fare

12 On occasion or household ticket by which some have confirmed reservation and different in ready checklist/RAC, full refund of fare, much less clerkage, is allowed for confirmed passengers additionally if the ticket is canceled

[a] inside Four hours earlier than scheduled departure of practice
[b] upto Four hours after precise departure of practice
upto 12 hours after the departure

13 When confirmed reservation is offered to RAC/WL tickets on the time of cancellation

[a] solely clerkage is collected [b] cancellation prices is levied as per rule
10% of fare solely collected [d] none of those

14 When reservation for beginning journey is confirmed however onward journey is just not confirmed and such ticket is offered for cancellation

[a] cancellation prices can be levied for the confirmed portion solely
[b] solely clerkage is collected
Cancellation prices can be levied for your entire journey
[d] none of those

15 When reservation for beginning journey is RAC/wait listed and onward journey is confirmed and such ticket is offered for cancellation

[a] cancellation prices can be levied for the confirmed portion solely
[b] solely clerkage is collected
cancellation prices for the confirmed portion and clerkage for the RAC/wait listed portion [d] none of those

16 Ticket on which change of reservation was permitted from decrease class to larger class, if canceled, ______ is collected

[a] cancellation prices due with respect to unique reservation and time/date when change of reservation was allowed
[b] cancellation prices due with respect to altered reservation and the time/date of cancellation
two cancellation prices due as talked about in (a) and (b) above.
[d] none of those

17 When a passenger misses connecting practice at any junction station on account of late operating of practice by which he traveled, if surrenders the ticket for refund

[a] fare for the traveled portion is retained [b] fare for the un-traveled portion is refunded refund is just not allowed [d] none of those

18 When the practice is canceled on account of floods, breaches and many others. ________upto Three days

[a] full refund shall be granted [b] clerkage is collected
90% of fare is refunded [d] none of those

19 When air-con facility couldn’t be offered for a portion of journey on AC FC ticket, _______ is refunded.

[a] distinction of AC FC and FC fare [b] distinction of AC FC and II fare
complete AC FC fare [d] none of those

20 Due to dislocation of practice providers, full fare for your entire booked journey shall be refunded

[a] when the railway is unable to hold the passengers to vacation spot station by arranging alternate transportation

[b] when passenger concerned in accident died/injured
when kith and kin of lifeless/injured passenger need to terminate journey
[d] all of those

21 When passenger is just not keen to avail alternate transportation to vacation spot on account of dislocation of practice providers, if cancels his journey

[a] fare for the traveled portion shall be retained [b] fare for the un-traveled portion is refunded clerkage and fare for the traveled portion is retained [d] none of those

22 After verification of equipped printed card tickets, the acknowledgment foil must be despatched to ____ Office by the Station Master

[a] DCM [b] Accounts Printing Press d] None above

23 Before inserting emergent indent, approval of ___ must be obtained.

[a] Accounts Office [b] CCM Printing Press [d] DCM

24 For the aim of inserting ticket indent, stations are categorised as______ relying upon the sale of ticket

[a] month-to-month, quarterly & half yearly [b] day by day, month-to-month & quarterly
quarterly, half yearly & yearly [d] half yearly, yearly & month-to-month

25 In case of stations upto 250 km, PCT could be indented when there’s a minimal sale of ___ tickets in a 12 months

[a] 10 or extra [b] 100 or extra 200 or extra [d] 400 or extra

26 In case of stations past 250 km, PCT could be indented when there’s a minimal sale of ___ tickets in a 12 months

[a] 10 or extra [b] 100 or extra 200 or extra [d] 400 or extra

27 DTC ebook is a whole document of ____ earnings at a station.

[a] teaching [b] items baggage [d] parcels

28 Non-issued tickets are despatched to Accounts Office every single day by way of

[a] courier [b] free bill method invoice CR word [d] month-to-month returns

29 Free allowance of bags on AC I class ticket is

[a] 70 kg [b] 150 kg c] 50 kg [d] 100 kg

30 Free allowance on I class cross is (Green)

[a] 50 kg [b] 70 kg 100 kg [d] 140 kg

31 In case of reserving of scooter with 150 CC, the chargeable weight is

[a] 100 kg [b] 200 kg 250 kg [d] none

32 Maximum permissible baggage with proprietor in AC chair automotive compartment is

[a] 80 kg [b] 70 kg 50 kg [d] 40 kg

33 Articles exempted from weighment on II class ticket are

[a] umbrella [b] strolling stick  Tiffin field [d] all these

34 Maximum weight of bags permitted to be carried with proprietor in sleeper class is

[a] 70 kg [b] 80 kg 40 kg [d] 100 kg

35 The requisition portion of HOR retained at station is handled as

[a] money voucher [b] touring authority  particular credit score letter [d] none of those

36 HOR is issued to High Officials akin to

[a] General Manager [b] Prime Minister C.C.M. [d] FA&CAO

37 Rail Travel coupons are offered for

[a] MLAs [b] MLCs Press correspondents d] All [e] None of those

38 Bed rolls are equipped freed from price for passengers of

[a] AC I class [b] AC 2 tier AC Three tier [d] All

39 Cloak room prices per article for first 24 hours or half thereon

[a] Rs.10/- [b] Rs.12/- Rs.15/- [d] None of those

40 Platform permits are issued for a interval of

[a] month-to-month [b] quarterly yearly [d] half yearly [e] all

41 B/J endorsement consists of

[a] station code preliminary [b] date initials of SM/TC [d] All

42 When a ticket is reserved upto vacation spot for greater than 500 KMs, B/J in need of vacation spot is

[a] allowed [b] not allowed permitted as soon as solely [d] permitted twice solely.

43 Maximum variety of B/Js permitted on a round journey ticket is

[a] Eight instances [b] 6 instances 10 instances [d] no restrict

44 B/J could be permitted for these holding single journey tickets for distance greater than

[a] 200 km [b] 500 km 400 km [d] any distance [e] None

45 B/J guidelines should not relevant to

[a] season ticket holders [b] railway cross holder Indrail cross ticket holder [d] all

46 Break journey is just not permitted at

[a] junction stations [b] intermediate station suburban stations [d] non-suburban stations

47 B/J is just not allowed on

[a] blind concession ticket [b] senior citizen concession ticket

concession tickets when issued for a particular objective

[d] bodily handicapped concession ticket

48 Registration-cum-safety deposit per coach is

[a] Rs. 1000/- [b] Rs. 10,000/- Rs. 5,000/- [d] Rs. 15,000/-

49 For reserving a particular coach ___% service cost is levied on fare.

[a] 12% [b] 15% 20% [d] 25%

50 Reservation on phone could be made for

[a] Ministers [b] Governors of State Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court
d] MPs [e] All

51 ____ comprises particulars of assorted concession allowed by Railways in fares.

[a] Coaching Tariff No.25, Part I, Vol.II [b] Coaching Tariff, Part II
Coaching Tariff, Part III [d] Coaching Tariff, Part IV

52 Concession fare shall be calculated on

[a] Total fare [b] reservation prices fundamental fare [d] none of those

53 Concession is just not admissible in respect of

[a] reservation prices [b] tremendous quick surcharge each [a] & [b] [d] fundamental fare

54 The charging of minimal fare is just not relevant to

[a] concession tickets [b] youngster tickets grownup tickets [d] each [b] &

55 No. of concessions allowed at one time is

[a] one solely [b] two three [d] 4

56 Cancer sufferers touring to and from hospital

[a] can break journey [b] can not break journey can break journey solely as soon as [d] can break journey twice

57 Concessions are granted throughout the counter at

[a] out companies [b] reservation workplace reserving workplace [d] all the above

58 SC/ST college students are charged at _____ of the conventional concessional fare admissible for common college students

[a] 25% [b] 75% 50% 33.3%

59 Student concession on season ticket is allowed in

[a] II class solely [b] I class solely ACCC [d] I class & II class

60 Concession is allowed for senior residents in

[a] II class solely [b] I class solely AC 2 tier solely [d] all lessons.

61 The factor of concession allowed for senior citizen in all lessons is ____ of fare.

[a] 25% [b] 50% 30% [d] none of those

62 When a I class reserved ticket is canceled sooner or later upfront, the cancellation cost is

[a] 50% of fare [b] 25% 75% [d] None of the above

63 _______ cancellation prices can be collected on tickets on which preponement or postponement of journey had been permitted

[a] as soon as [b] thrice twice [d] 4 instances

64 When a passenger holding reserved ticket is just not supplied with lodging, the quantity of refund allowed is

[a] full fare [b] 25% of fare much less clerkage [d] 50% of fare

65 In case of loss of life/damage to a passenger on account of practice accident, the kith and kin of passenger can be given____ as refund

[a] complete fare [b] fare for the traveled portion is retained and the steadiness is given
fare is refunded deducting clerkage [d] 75% of fare

66 When practice providers are dislocated on account of bandh, agitation or rail roko, the refundable quantity is

[a] fare for the traveled portion is retained and the steadiness is refunded
[b] 25% of fare 50% of fare [d] full fare

COMMERCIAL QUESTIONS

Commercial General – PART I

 

 

Descriptive Type

1 What are the features of the Commercial Department? Duties of the Commercial employees   particularly Enquiry Clerks and Ticket Checking employees?
2 Give intimately the overall guidelines for reservation of berths and seats?
3 Write about Section 49 of the Railways Act, 1989? Write the process for reservation of berths by Railway cross holders and likewise about cancellation of reservation?
4 What are the measures taken by the Railways in apprehending individuals making false Reservation? Write about Section 53, 142 and 143 of the Railways Act, 1989?
5 Write about refund of fares on unused unreserved tickets and unused reserved ticket?
6 How do you organize refund within the following circumstances: reply any three
a) Change of journey from decrease class to increased class.
b) Discontinuation of journey attributable to dislocation of prepare providers.
c) When a passenger is made to journey in decrease class for need of lodging.
d) Partially used tickets.
7 How do you organize refund within the following circumstances: reply any three
a) Preponement and Postponement of journey
b) Failure on Air conditioning gear
c) Starting journey confirmed onward journey not confirmed and vice versa.
d) Non-commencement of lacking of journey attributable to late operating of trains.
8 Write about revised Tatkal scheme for reservation of berths?
9 What is the process adopted for allotment of reservation quotas to varied stations?What do you perceive by rationalization of reservations by lengthy distance trains?
10 What are the overall guidelines for trade of assorted concessions on Indian Railways?
11 Ladies are given some privileges by Indian Railways clarify? What are the amenities offered to international vacationers and Members of Parliament?
12 Write brief notes on trade of the next concessions:
a) Orthopedically handicapped concession.
b) Blind concession.
c) Students Concession.
13 Write brief notes on the next:
a) Check Soldier Ticket
b) Soldier Ticket.
c) Police Warrants.
14 Write about Joint Procedural Order issued within the yr 2004 for trade and accountal of High Official Requisition?
15 What is supposed by Exceptional information report? What are the duties of ticket checking employees  and E&RS for arranging refund and what are the circumstances coated underneath this scheme?
16 What is supposed by e-ticketing? How e-reservation is made and what’s Electronic reservation slip and the way e-ticket might be cancelled?
17 Explain the process for reserving of a particular carriage/prepare and the way do you calculate haulage and detention costs?
18 Write brief notes on the next
a) Block reservation or group reservation
b) Ticket Deposit Receipt.
19 What are the duties of the Corridor Coach Attendants? What are the duties of the Ticket Checking Staff working by Sleeper class and Upper lessons?
20 What are the completely different sort of checks carried out by Ticket checking group to eradicate ticket much less journey ?
21 What are the reason for ticket much less journey and provides your solutions to eradicate ticketless journey?
22 What are the incentives and Awards Scheme out there on S.C. Railway for implementation of Hindi?
23 What are the constitutional provision concerning use of Official Language Policy?

                       Commercial General – PART II

 

Objective Type Questions:

Fill within the blanks:
1 No. of languages necessary on II class unreserved printed card tickets are _________
Ticket checking employees will subject ___________ ticket solely.
3 On a pc ticket PNR stands for _____________________________
4 Children underneath _____ years of age are to be carried free.
5 Children aged _____ years and above and underneath ____ years of age are charged half of the grownup fare topic to minimal fare.
6 F.O.I.S. stands for _____________________.
7 C.R.I.S. stands for ______________________.
Eight I.R.C.T.C. stands for ______________________.
9 R.D.S.O. stands for ________________________.
10 I.R.F.C. stands for ________________________.
11 R.I.T.E.S stands for __________________________.
12 I.R.T.S. stands for __________________________.
13 CONCOR stands for ___________________.
14 IRCON stands for ______________________.
15 Check Soldier Ticket is issued in trade of army warrant No.________
16 Soldier ticket is issued in trade of army warrant No._________
17 The higher portion of IAFT 1752 will likely be submitted to __________ as money voucher.
18 ICCRP entitles MPs to journey in_________ class together with partner over all Indian Railways.
19 Colour of ICCRP issued to MPs of Lok Sabha is _________
20 Colour of ICCRP issued to MPs of Rajya Sabha is _________
21 In case of Indrail Pass Ticket, regular Break journey guidelines are __________
22 HOR is introduced at stations in ___________ parts.
23 Platform tickets are legitimate for ___________ hours.
24 Cost of platform ticket is Rs.____
25 Maximum break journey interval is _______ days excluding the date of arrival and departure.
26 Maximum variety of break journey permitted on single journey ticket is __________
27 The variety of break journeys permitted on a round journey ticket is _________
28 The fare for a round journey is calculated as sum of ______________________.
29 Accommodation for girls have to be reserved in trains as per part ______ of Railway Act 1989.
30 _________escort for each Four women of any age and boy college students underneath the age of 12 years allowed at concessional fare.
31 __________ escort for each 10 Adult college students is allowed at concessional fare.
32 Percentage of concession allowed on AC 2 tier fare for blind particular person is ________
33 Certificate issued for the blind is legitimate for a interval of ___________ years.
34 Cancer certificates is legitimate for __________ years.
35 On assortment of __________ fare, outward & return journey ticket is issued for unemployed youth.
36 War widows are allowed ____% concession in II/Sleeper class
37 Change of reservation is finished solely ___________________
38 Sleeping lodging is offered from__________ to ________ hours.
39 R.A.C. stands for _______________________
40 P.O.E.T. stands for _____________________
41 I.V.R.S. stands for ______________________
42 N.T.E.S. stands for ______________________
43 S.O.F.T. stands for _____________________________
44 CONCERT stands for ___________________________.
45 E.D.R stands for _________________________________.
46 Passengers with reserved seats/berths should occupy their respective seats/berths ____ minutes earlier than the departure of the prepare.
47 Reservation might be made _____ days prematurely for international nationals.
48 Tatkal cost throughout non peak interval in sleeper class is Rs.________ per passenger.
49 Tatkal cost throughout non peak interval in A.C.Chair Car is Rs.________ per passenger.
50 Tatkal cost throughout non peak interval in A.C.3 Tier is Rs.________ per passenger.
51 Tatkal cost throughout non-peak interval in AC.2 Tier is Rs.________ per passenger.
52 ACM/AO/AM/SS[GAZ] can allow group reserving in First Class and AC Classes from___ to ___ mber of berths.
53 DCM can allow group reserving in First Class and AC Classes from___ to ___ variety of berths.
54 Sr.DCM can allow group reserving in First Class and AC Classes from___ ___ .
55 EDRs must be ready by __________________.
56 EDR needs to be ready in ___________
57 Clerkage cost is Rs. ________ per passenger.
58 The minimal cancellation costs on I class reserved ticket is Rs.________
59 In case the fare isn’t refunded on the station, the occasion needs to be issued with _____________
60 On un-used unreserved tickets refunds might be organized upto__ hours after the departure of the prepare.
61 Unused waitlisted/RAC tickets if not confirmed, ______________ will likely be deducted when cancelled.
62 Ticket Deposit Receipt is issued upto ________ days after the scheduled departure of the prepare.
63 The Passenger might apply for refund on TDR inside _____ days from the endorsed date of graduation of journey to CCM/DCM.
64 Male individuals discovered touring in women compartment shall be prosecuted as per part ________ of Railway Act 1989.
65 Drunkenness or nuisance upon a railway will likely be dealt as per part ______ of Railway Act 1989.
66 Fine as per part 137 of the Railway Act 1989 for touring with out ticket deliberately is Rs.____
67 An individual prosecuted as per part 142 of Railway Act 1989 is liable to pay a high quality of Rs.___
68 An individual prosecuted as per part 138 of Railway Act 1989 is liable to pay a high quality of Rs._____
69 Fine for hawking upon a railway might prolong upto Rs.________
70 An individual discovered touring with out intention to defraud the Railway is dealt as per part _____ of Railway Act 1989
71 The ticket estimate needs to be revised as soon as in _______ years.
72 The out of date, broken printed card tickets are despatched to FA&CAO Office via _______ indent.
73 For preparation of the ticket estimate, precise variety of tickets bought for first _____ months of the yr needs to be labored out.
74 ______ months buffer inventory needs to be added to the conventional requirement of tickets whereas making ready the ticket indent.
75 The ticket indent is ready in _______ copies by the Station Master.
76 Commencing numbers of the PCTs for the day are posted within the DTC guide from the ________ day closing numbers.
77 Handing over and taking up of teaching money is recorded in _____________ guide.
78 Luggage is booked on the power of legitimate ___________ or ______________
79 Free allowance of bags on a I class youngster ticket is _____ kgs.
80 Maximum weight of bags that may be carried in AC Three tier compartment is ______ kgs.
81 Chargeable weight of a canine for reserving in AC top notch is _______ kgs.
82 Chargeable weight of a canine for reserving in brake-van is _______ kgs.

                   Commercial General – PART III

 

Multiple selection questions

1 Dog is permitted to be booked with proprietor in
[a] top notch [b] AC 2 tier  Sleeper class [d] II class [e] none of those

2 Minimum freight cost for reserving a canine is
[a] Rs.50/- [b] Rs.30/- Rs.100/- [d] None of those

3 Chargeable weight of a canine booked with a blind particular person in top notch compartment is
[a] 60 kg [b] 30 kg 50 kg [d] none of those

4 To guide a canine in brake van, one of many following is to be executed by the proprietor
[a] forwarding be aware [b] RR PWB [d] none of those

5 Chargeable weight of a canine for reserving in AC FC is
[a] 60 kg [b] 30 kg 50 kg [d] not booked

6 Head of Public Relations division at Zonal Railway is

[a] CCM b] CPRO Sr.DOM [d] Sr.DCM

7 Head of Commercial Department at Zonal degree is

[a] CPRO [b] COM CCM [d] Sr.DCM

8 Head of Public complaints at Zonal degree is

[a] Sr. DOM [b] AGM DRM [d] COM

9 Head of Public complaints at Divisional degree is

a] Sr. DCM [b] ADRM Sr. DOM [d] CCM

10 A criticism is made in ___ foils

[a] 3 [b] 4 [5] [d] 2

11 General Managers of Zonal Railways are supplied with _____ steel cross

[a] gold [b] silver Bronze [d] Platinum

12 The particulars which are necessary to be printed on a journey ticket as per part 50 of Railway Act 1989

[a] station from and station to [b] fare class
[d] date of subject [e] all these f] none of those

13 Minimum distance for cost in sleeper class

[a] 15 kms   b] 100 kms 150 kms 200 kms

14 Printed card ticket needs to be dated on

[a] obverse aspect (face of the ticket) [b] reverse aspect either side [d] not dated

15 Check soldier ticket is issued to

[a] people [b] teams households [d] none of those

16 Soldier tickets might be issued to

[a] people [b] invalid individuals relations of soldier [d] all these

17 Indrail cross tickets are issued on assortment of

[a] US {dollars} [b] British kilos another convertible forex [d] all

18 Indrail cross ticket holders are exempted from cost of

[a] reservation costs [b] supplementary costs meals costs [d] all

19 The requisition portion of HOR retained at station is handled as

[a] money voucher [b] touring authority particular credit score letter [d] none of those

20 HOR is issued to excessive officers equivalent to

[a] General Manager [b] Governor C.C.M. [d] FA&CAO

21 Rail Travel coupons are offered for

[a] MLAs [b] MLCs Press correspondents [d] All [e] None of those

22 Cloak room costs per article for first 24 hours or a part of

[a] Rs.10/- [b] Rs.12/- Rs.15/- [d] Rs.20/-

23 Break Journey endorsement consists of

[a] station [b] date initials of SM/TC [d] All

24 When a ticket is reserved upto vacation spot for greater than 500 KM, break journey in need of vacation spot is

[a] allowed [b] not allowed permitted as soon as solely [d] permitted twice solely.

25 Maximum variety of break journey permitted on a round journey ticket is

[a] Eight instances [b] 6 instances 10 instances [d] no restrict

26 Break journey might be permitted for these holding single journey tickets for distance greater than

[a] 200 km [b] 500 km 400 km [d] any distance

27 Break journey guidelines aren’t relevant to

[a] season ticket holders [b] railway cross holder Indrail cross ticket holder [d] all

28 Break journey isn’t permitted at

[a] junction stations [b] intermediate station suburban stations [d] non-suburban stations

29 Break journey isn’t allowed on

[a] blind concession ticket [b] concession tickets when issued for a particular function senior citizen concession ticket [d] bodily handicapped concession ticket

30 Concession fare shall be calculated on

[a] complete fare [b] reservation costs fundamental fare [d] None of those

31 Concession isn’t admissible in respect of

[a] reservation costs [b] tremendous quick surcharge Safety surcharge [d] All

32 The charging of minimal fare isn’t relevant to

[a] concession tickets [b] youngster tickets grownup tickets [d] none

33 No. of concessions allowed at one time is

[a] one solely [b] two three [d] 4

34 Cancer sufferers touring to and from hospital

[a] can break journey [b] can’t break journey can break journey solely as soon as [d] can break journey twice

35 All concessions are granted throughout the counter at

[a] out businesses [b] reservation workplace reserving workplace [d] all the above

36 SC/ST college students are charged at _____ of the conventional concessional fare admissible for basic college students

[a] 25% [b] 75% 50% 33.3%

37 ____ incorporates particulars of assorted concession allowed by Railways in fares.

[a] Coaching Tariff No.24, Part I, Vol.II [b] Coaching Tariff, Part II
Coaching Tariff, Part III [d] Coaching Tariff, Part IV

38 Student concession on season ticket is allowed in

[a] II class solely [b] I class solely ACCC [d] I class & II class

39 Concession is allowed for senior residents in

[a] II class solely [b] I class solely AC 2 tier solely [d] all lessons.

40 The aspect of concession allowed for senior citizen in all lessons is ____ of fare.

[a] 25% [b] 50% 30% [d] none of those

41 For each break journey, recent ______ is payable

[a] super-fast supplementary cost [b] reservation cost 12% surcharge [d] clerkage

42 Reservation-cum-security deposit per coach is

[a] Rs. 1000/- [b] Rs. 10,000/- Rs. 5,000/- [d] Rs. 15,000/-

43 For reserving a particular coach ___% service cost is levied on fare.

[a] 12% [b] 15% 20% d] 25%

44 Reservation on phone might be made for

[a] Ministers [b] Governors of State Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court [d] MPs [e] All

45 A most of ___ members might be booked on a single utility for a household or occasion

[a] 3 [b] Four c] 5 [d] 6

46 Exchange of berths within the coach between passengers is

[a] not permitted [b] permitted with the information of TTE
permitted on cost of surcharge [d] none of those

47 Passengers are required to occupy their seat/berth atleast ___ minutes earlier than departure of the prepare

[a] 10 minutes [b] 20 minutes 30 minutes [d] 40 minutes

48 The vacant berth in women quota is

[a] allotted to male passengers [b] not allotted to male passengers
allotted to male kids under 12 years accompanying girl passengers [d] each (b) & (c)

49 The passenger whose identify figures underneath RAC are initially supplied with reserved

[a] sleeping lodging  [b] sitting lodging neither (a) or (b)

50 RAC facility isn’t out there in

[a] sleeper class [b] AC 2 tier AC Three tier [d] AC FC

51 If the requisition for particular carriage is positioned lower than 30 days prematurely, permission have to be obtained from

[a] CPTM [b] AGM CCM [d] DCM

52 Minimum distance for cost is __ km in a single route in case of particular carriage

[a] 500 [b] 700 1000 [d] 2000

53 On particular reserved carriage, costs are calculated for

[a] precise variety of individuals touring [b] marked CC of the coach
both (a) or (b) whichever is increased [d] none of those

54 Concession is _______ in particular reserved carriage

[a] permitted [b] not permitted permitted just for senior residents [d] none of those

55 The costs for particular carriage needs to be paid in full ____ hours prematurely of the departure of prepare.

[a] 24 hours [b] 48 hours 72 hours [d] Four days

56 Security deposit for particular carriage will likely be refunded by ____ inside 15 days after completion of journey

[a] CCM [b] SM of the journey originating station DCM [d] ACM

57 If the reservation for particular carriage is cancelled at some point prematurely and upto Four hours earlier than the scheduled departure of prepare

[a] 10% of SDRF is collected as cancellation price [b] 25% of fare is collected as cancellation price
50% of SDRF is collected as cancellation price [d] none of those

58 If the ticket for particular carriage is misplaced, duplicate ticket will likely be issued on assortment of

[a] 10% of fare [a] 25% of fare [a] 50% of fare [d] none of those

59 Request for permission to board en-route could also be made ___ earlier than scheduled departure of prepare from that station

[a] 24 hours [b] 32 hours 48 hours [d] 72 hours

60 Reservation made underneath tatkal scheme if cancelled.

[a] 50% of fare will likely be refunded [b] fare together with tatkal costs is not going to be refunded solely tatkal costs isn’t refunded

61 Tatkal cost throughout peak interval in Sleeper class per passenger is Rs. _______

[a] 75 [b] 150 200 [d] 300

62 Tatkal cost throughout peak interval in AC Chair Car per passenger is Rs. _______

[a] 75 [b] 150 200 [d] 300

63 Tatkal cost throughout peak interval in AC 3 Tier per passenger is Rs. _______

[a] 75 [b] 150 200 [d] 300

64 Tatkal cost throughout peak interval in AC 2 Tier per passenger is Rs. _______

[a] 75 [b] 150 200 [d] 300

65 The CRI incharge of the reservation officers are permitted to simply accept Group Booking in Sleeper class

[a] from 18 to 24 [b] from 25 to 48 from 49 to 72 [d] 73 and above

66 The ACM/AO/AM/SS(GAZ) can allow Group Booking in Sleeper class

[a] from 18 to 24 [b] from 25 to 48 from 49 to 72 [d] 73 and above

67 The DCM can allow Group Booking in Sleeper class

[a] from 18 to 24 [b] from 25 to 48from 49 to 72 [d] 73 and above

68 Sr.DCM of the division can allow group reserving in sleeper class

[a] from 18 to 24 [b] from 25 to 48 from 49 to 72 [d] 73 and above

69 On a round journey ticket reservation costs are collected ______

[a] as soon as [b] for every leg of journey No reservation cost [d] none

70 On a round journey ticket tremendous quick surcharge is collected _____________

[a] as soon as for whole journey [b] for every leg of journey twice [d] none

Translate »
You cannot copy content of this page